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22 Important Politics MCQs for all competitive examinations


In this article there are 22 most important politics MCQs for AFCAT CDS NDA SSC exam. These are frequently asked in defence exams, ssc exams and banking exams as well.
Que 1: Which of the following rights are available to Indian citizens as well as foreigners residing in Indian territory ?
I. Cultural and Educational Rights.
II. Right to Freedom of religion.
III. Right against discrimination by the State on grounds of religion, race, caste, sex or place of birth.
IV. Right to personal liberty.

(A) I and II
(B) III and IV
(C) II and IV
(D) I, II, III and IV

Correct Ans: C

Que 2: Which of the following factors do not Explain why the rights included in Part III of the
Constitution are called 'fundamental' ?
I. They are equally available to citizens and aliens.
II. They are superior to ordinary law
III. They are fundamental for governing the country.
IV. They are not absolute.

(A) II and IV
(B) I, II and III
(C) I, III and IV
(D) III and IV

Correct Ans: C

Que 3: The Fundamental Right to ____ has been deleted by the ___ Amendment Act.

(A) form associations; 44th
(B) property; 44th
(C) against exploitation; 42nd
(D) private property; 42nd

Correct Ans: B

Que 4: Which statement/s is/are not correct regarding the Fundamental Rights?
I. Some of these rights are not available to the Armed Forces.
II. They are automatically suspended when any emergency is proclaimed by the President.
III. The President alone can decide upon modifying their application to the Armed Forces.
IV. They cannot be amended as they form a basic feature of the Constitution

(A) I and II
(B) II, III and IV
(C) I and IV
(D) I, II, III and IV

Correct Ans: B

Que 5: Which Article of the Constitution of India says, 'No child below the age of fourteen
years shall be employed to work in any factory or mine or engaged in any other
hazardous employment’?

(A) Article 24
(B) Article 45
(C) Article 330
(D) Article 368

Correct Ans: A

Que 6: Separation of the Judiciary from the Executive is enjoined by :

(A) Preamble
(B) Directive Principle
(C) Seventh Schedule
(D) Judicial Decision

Correct Ans: B

Que 7: Which Article of the Constitution envisages free and compulsory education for children
upto the age of 14 years?

(A) Article 45
(B) Article 19
(C) Article 29
(D) Article 32

Correct Ans: A

Que 8: Which part of the Constitution deals with the Directive Principles of State Policy?

(A) Part III
(B) Part IV
(C) Part V
(D) Part II

Correct Ans: B

Que 9: Which of the following is not a Directive Principle of the State Policy?

(A) To raise the level of nutrition
(B) To develop the scientific temper
(C) To promote economic interests of weaker sections
(D) To separate the Judiciary from the Executive

Correct Ans: B

Que 10: Which of the following Directive Principles is based on Gandhian ideology?

(A) Equal pay for equal work for both men and women
(B) Uniform civil code for all citizens
(C) Separation of Judiciary from Executive
(D) Promotion of cottage industries

Correct Ans: D

Que 11: Which of the following cannot be termed 'Gandhian' among the Directive Principles?

(A) Prevention of cow slaughter
(B) Promotion of cottage industries
(C) Establishment of village panchayats
(D) Uniform civil code for the country

Correct Ans: D

Que 12: Which of the following is/are listed among the Directive Principles in Part IV?
I. Equal pay for equal work.
II. Uniform civil code.
III. Small family norm
IV. Education through mother tongue at primary level.

(A) I, II and III
(B) I and II
(C) II and III
(D) I, II, III and IV

Correct Ans: B

Que 13: Which of the following were added to the Directive Principles by amendments to the
Constitution?
I. To protect and improve the environment and safeguard wild life.
II. Right of workers to participate in management of industries.
III. Right to work
IV. To protect and maintain places of historic interest.

(A) I and III
(B) II and IV
(C) I, III and IV
(D) I and II

Correct Ans: D

Que 14: Which one of the following statements correctly describes the Fourth Schedule of the
Constitution of India?

(A) It contains the scheme of the distribution of power between the Union and the States
(B) contains subjects over which Municipalities may have control
(C) contains recommendations relating to establishment of State Finance Commission
(D) was added by the 73rd Amendment Act

Correct Ans: B

Que 15: The Ninth Schedule was added by the ______ Amendment.

(A) First
(B) Ninth
(C) Thirty-fifth
(D) Thirty-sixth

Correct Ans: A

Que 16: In the Constitution of India, promotion of international peace and security is mentioned in the:

(A) Preamble to the Constitution
(B) Directive Principles of State Policy
(C) Fundamental Duties
(D) Ninth Schedule

Correct Ans: B

Que 17: Which language is not recognised in the 8th Schedule though it is an official
language of a State?

(A) English
(B) Sindhi
(C) Sanskrit
(D) Kashmiri

Correct Ans: A

Que 18: Consider the following statements:
1. There are twelve Fundamental Duties laid down in the Constitution of India for every citizen of India.
2. There is no provision in the Constitution of India for direct enforcement of the Fundamental Duties.
3. One of the Fundamental Duties of every citizen of India is to cast his/her vote in general or State elections so as to maintain a vibrant democracy in India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(A) 1 and 2
(B) 2 only
(C) 2 and 3
(D) 3 only

Correct Ans: B

Que 19: In which one of the following does the subject of Co-operative Societies fall ?

(A) Union List
(B) State List
(C) Concurrent List
(D) Residuary Powers Government

Correct Ans: C

Que 20: With what subject do the Articles 5 to 8 of the Constitution of India deal?

(A) Details of Indian Union and its territory
(B) Citizenship
(C) Fundamental Duties
(D) Union Executive

Correct Ans: B

Que 21: Under which Article of the Constitution is the President's rule promulgated on any State in India?

(A) 356
(B) 352
(C) 360
(D) 370

Correct Ans: A

Que 22: A proclamation of emergency issued under Article 352 must be approved by the Parliament within:

(A) 1 month
(B) 6 weeks
(C) 2 months
(D) 3 months

Correct Ans: A

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